Last updated on August 3rd, 2024 at 01:29 pm

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY 2006 POST UME SCREENING TEST

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

From the words lettered A – E, choose the word that is alike in meaning to the word

underlined.

1. The man is known to be a sly. I won’t trust him with anything. This means the man is know as a (a) deceiver (b) thief (c) kidnapper(d) rogue (e) burglar
2. The woman was happy because her gorgeous dressing made her quite obtrusive. The woman was very (a) appreciate (b) proud (c)good (d) noticeable (e) excellent
3. Andrew made some bellicose statement about his strength to other boys in the street. This means that Andrew

(a) is a brave man (b) Wishes to fight (c) is a coward (d) loves to help others with his power (e) has a lot of power

4. Scrupulous politicians do not have a place in the Nigerian politics. Scrupulous politicians are (a) honest (b) dishonest

(c) corrupt (d) good-nature

(e) insincere

5. The excuse that he forgot about the meeting was a flimsy one. This means the excuse was (a) very bad (b) a complete lie (c) difficult to believe (d) not important (e) a very good one

From the alternatives suggested, select the answer that best expresses the same meaning as the expression italicized in each exercise.

6. I wonder if you would allow me to put out the fire. (a) I might (b) I can (c) I should (d) I have to (e)All of them
7. Don’t take the plate away; it is possible for the owner to ask for it. (a) the owner might (b) the owner can (c) the owner is going to (d) the owner will come to

(e) none of them

8. I know a carpenter that knows how to make that kind of wardrobe(a) could (b) has the – know-how (c) can (d) can be able (e) may be able to
9. Frances, where is your male visitor? Don’t lie to me, it is not possible that he has gone through the high window. (a) he couldn’t have (b) he can’t have (c) he shouldn’t (d) he mustn’t have (e) None of them.
10. When your great-grandmother was in Vietnam, did she have the ability to speak Chinese? (a) had she been able (b) was she enabled (c) could she (d) how possible was it for her (e) None of them
11. My father made no bones about telling his friend how he felt about his behaviour.

This means that my father (a) spoke well to his friend about his behaviour

(b) spoke honestly to his friend about his behaviour (c) spoke in the open to his friend about his behaviour (d) spoke hesitantly to his friend about his behaviour

(e) spoke with all his might to his friend about has behaviour

12. After much talk, my brother thought it was to hit the hay. This means that my brother thought it was time to (a) make hay while the sun shines (b) burn the collection of hay (c) go to bed (d) keep quiet (e) tell the others off

13. The housemaster was foaming in the mouth when he discovered the some students had sneaked out of t6he hostel. This means the house master (a) was very sad

(b) had epilepsy (c) became silent and calculative (d) was uncontrollably furious (e) was jittery

14. Who told Mabel she could sing? She really laid an egg at the talent show. This means
15. Mabel’s performance was very embarrassing (b) Mabel’s

performance was very interesting (c) Mabel’s performance was very impressive (d)

Mabel’s performance was not very bad (e) Mabel’s performance was like that of a hen laying an egg

15. Mr. Johnson is on the warpath because his car broke down again. This means Mr.

Johnson is (a) ready to fight his mechanic

2. started fighting the government because the road was bad (c) very infuriated

(d) fighting a war with his family in the car (e) drawing a battle in between him and his mechanic

FOR QUESTION 16-20, choose among the options A – E the word that is nearest in meaning to the italicized word in each of the sentences

16. As he watched the winning film his face remained inscrutable. (a) unreadable

(b) pale (c) unfriendly

4. impossible to please
5. enjoyed
6. He resented being criticized every time by his boss.

(a) preferred (b) abhorred

(c) ignored (d) carefully considered (e) enjoyed

18. The President announced that all political prisoners have been pardoned. (a) condemned

(b) severely rebuked (c) banished (d) reprieved (e) released

19. The most striking thing about the just-concluded World-Cup Final in Germany was the complete eclipse of the defending champion – Brazil

(a) sudden disappearance (b) defeat (c) failure (d) brilliant performance (e) arrogance

20. His latest album has done much to boast his reputation as a writer (a) increase (b) establish

(c) nourish (d) destroy (e) decrease

For question 21 – 25, choose from the options A – E the word or phrase opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

21. Andrew is too garrulous for my liking (a) dull (b) apathetic

(c) laconic (d) easy going (e) dumb

22. The man holds parochial view on almost every issue. (a) rational (b) realistic (c) popular (d) broad- minded (e) sensible
23. The doctor certified the tumour malignant (a) benign (b) ripe (c) painless (d) dangerous (e) slow
24. The people appreciated the chairman for his invaluable contributions to the community’s development. (a) worthless (b) costly (c) unrecognized (d) incalculable (e) meaningless

25. Your idea on this issue seems to me quite novel. (a) bookish (b) dangerous (c) archaic (d) genuine (e) good
26. Which of the following statements is true with regard to summary writing? (a) Details are more important than main ideas (b) Main ideas are more important than examples (c) Illustrations are more important than main ideas (d) Elaborations,

exemplifications and details are more important than main ideas (e) None of the above

Choose the appropriate option to complete the following:

27. God should take control of the heart of the organizers of this Post-UME screening exercise, they should not make this test than UME (a) more tough

(b) more tougher (c) much tougher (d) more much tougher

28. At the crusade, we prayed to God to this on us.(a) breath His breathe (b) breathe His breath (c) breathe His breathe (d) breath His breath
29. The Chairman, Committee of Deans needs to see your friend Dele urgently, do you know his ? (a) where and about (b) where abouts (c) where about (d) where and abouts
30. “As from now, this university will have zero tolerance for any form of malpractice” said the Vice- Chancellor. The Vice-Chancellor said that (a) as from then, that university would have zero tolerance for any form of malpractice (b) as from how, this university would have zero tolerance for any form of malpractice (c) as from then, his university will have zero tolerance for any form of malpractice (d) as from then, that university would begin to have zero tolerance for any form of malpractice
31. The teacher took me for one of those students who could not spell such words as

1. ‘miscellaneous and maintenance’
2. ‘miscellaneous and maintenance’
3. ‘miscellaneous and maintenance’
4. ‘miscellaneous and maintenance’

ANSWER KEY

1. A 2 D 3 B 4D 5 C 6B 7A 8 C 9 A 10C 11B

12 C 13 D 14 A 15 C 16 A 17 B 18 E 19 A 20 B 21C 22D

23 A 24A 25 C 26 B 27 A 28 B 29C 30 B 31 C

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ENGLISH 2007 POST UME TEST

“When he was turned over, his eyeballs stared upward in amazement and horror,

His

mouth was locked torn wide: his trousers soaked with blood, were torn open, and exposed

to the cold, white air of morning the thick hairs of his groin, mattered together, black and

rust red, and the wound that seemed to be throbbing still”.

1. This passage achieves realism through the

b. simple words

c. the long sentence d. the past tense

Earth has not anything to show more fair Dull would he be of soul who could pass by A

sight so touching in its majesty This city now doth, like garment, wear The beauty of the

morning

2. It is suggested in these lines that
   1. The beauty of the morning gains from the beauty of the city
   2. The beauty of the city gains from the beauty of the morning
   3. The beauty of the city and the beauty of the morning are unrelated.
   4. There is no beauty on earth

If I can fasten but one cup upon him with that which he had drunk tonight already. He’ll

be as full of quarrel and offences as my young mistress dog……… Shakespeare, Othello

3. From the statement above it can be inferred that the speaker is
   1. Disobedient
   2. Quarrelsome
   3. A drunkard

That that is why wwe must acc — c- cept the uni— versal d — d dome, b — b – because

ththere is no d — d — d direction. The b — b — bridge is the d— d — dome of religion

and b — b — bridges d — ddon’tjjjust g — g — go from hhhere to the there; a bridge

also faces backwards”.

Wole Soyinka, The Interpreters

4. The idiolectical feature of the character’s speech is the
   1. Repetition of consonant sounds
   2. Repetition of initial consonant sounds
   3. Duplication of consonant sound clusters
   4. Multiplication of dipthongs
5. “As virtuous men pass wildly away, And higher to their souls, to go,

Whilst some of

their sad friends do say, The breadth goes now”, and some say “No”.

The tone of this poem is generally

1. Appreciative b. Serious

c. Imaginative d. Conversational

6. I am alone

And the murmur of my lips Carry song and tears homewards From a plain away from home

“Okogbule Wonodi, Lament for Shola”

The poet-persona here expresses a feeling of

1. Love b. Anger

c. Nostalgia d. Sorrow

7. One rhyme scheme typical of the English sonnet is Abba abba cde cde

Abba abba cde dce Abab cdcd efef gg Abcd babb cde cc

8. Farce thrives on
   1. Big events b. promotion c. Absurdity d. incident
9. A short witty statement is an
   1. Epistle b. Eulogy Epigram d. Anecdote
10. In a narration, the first person is

a. The author b. A participant

c. The publisher d. An observer

11. A literary device that creates a mental picture of a situation is

a. Imagery b. Symbolism

c. Flashback d. Epilogue

12. Periphrasis in poetic diction is marked by

a. Circumlocution b. Irony

c. Proverb d. Parable

13. A deliberate imitation of a literary style with the intention to ridicule is

a. Lampoon b. Prosody

c. Pun d. Parody

14. What happened to Tess at the end of Thomas Hardy’s Tess of the D’urbervilles

1. She is executed for committing murder
2. She got married to Angel Clare
3. She got married to Alec D’urbervilles
4. She gave birth to a baby boy
5. The wood where Alec raped Tess is known as

a. Chaseborough b. The chase

c. Greenhill d. Tranfridge

16. The name of the place where Tess and Angel Clare meet each other the second time

a. trantridge b. Brazil

c. Dubeyfield d. TAlbothays farm

17. “Taxi Driver” in Timothy Wangusa’s “A Taxi driver on his Death “can be interpreted

as a metaphor describing:

a. a careful driver b. a ruthless dictator

c. a drunkard d. a careless man

18. The tone in Dennis Brutus’“A Troubador I Traverse “can be described as:

a. defiant b. submissive c. regretful d. arrogant

19. “Naett” in Leopold e Sedar Senghor’s “1 will Pronounce your Name” refers to:

a. South Africa b. A woman

c. A man d. Black Africa

20. Cloud I, early sequestered from my tribe, Free a lead — tethered scribe”. The above lines from J.P. Clark’s “Agbor

Dancer” suggest that the person is:

1. One with his tribe
2. Alienated from his tribe
3. One of the dancers
4. One of the drummers
5. The name of the author of “We Must Learn to Fly” is:

1. Dennis Brutus
2. Leopold Sedar Senghor
3. Odia Ofeimun d. Wole Soyinka
4. One of the following is a characteristic of a novel:

1. it is written only in dialogues
2. it adopts the poetic form c. it is written mainly in prose d. it employs phrases and

sentences

23. The Law protecting works of art from unlawful reproduction is called:

a. plagiarism b. illegal photocopying

c. authorization d. copywright

24. The play hamlet may be described as a tragedy of:

1. belief in ghosts
2. marital infidelity
3. indecision and procrastination
4. inordinate love of father by son

ANSWER KEY

1 A 2 B 3D 4 C 5B 6 C

7 C 8D 9C I0A 11A 12A

13D 14 A 15 – 16 – 17D 18A

19 B 20 B 21 C 22 C 23D 24A

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ENGLISH

2008 POST UME TEST

1. An autobiographical novel is:
   1. A novel written about another novelist
   2. A true account of a novelist’s life by himself
   3. A novel in which the novelist draws mainly on materials from his own life
   4. A novel using the ‘I’ pronoun
2. Plot in prose fiction is best defined as:
   1. The cause and — effect sequence of events
   2. The brief summary of events
   3. The central event
   4. The subject — matter of a novel
3. Which of these is not true about unity of action in a novel?
   1. Action may be unified through a single main character
   2. Action may be unified by being set in one place
   3. Action may be unified by many characters
   4. Action may be unified by having one consistent point of view
4. Action in a novel is best defined as:
   1. The summary of the novel’s story
   2. What the characters do or say in the novel
   3. The numerous sub — plots of the novel put together
   4. The totality of all the episodes in a novel leading to the conclusion
5. Suspense in a novel means
   1. the postponement of the hero’s death till the last possible moment
   2. the intense emotions that the author conveys c the inconclusive end of a novel

d. when we are curious about what happens next in a novel

6. A realistic novel is one in which the characters are:
   1. real
   2. historical
   3. just of above average intelligence
   4. the types that we meet in everyday life
7. Theme is best defined as:
   1. The subject matter of a novel or play the b. central idea in a play or novel

c. The point of view in that novel

d. The sum — total of all the characters experiences

8. What figure of speech does the following quotation contain? Life’s but a walking shadow (Macbeth)
   1. A metaphor b. An image

c. A synecdoche d. An allusion

9. Which of the following statement is most true about poetry?

a the meaning of words are more important than their sounds

b. the sounds of words are more important than their meanings

c. the sound of words are often more important than their meanings d sounds and meanings of words are of little consequence

10. Which of these best define exposition in drama?

1. the author’s own general introduction to the play
2. the author’s early exposure of his dramatis personae to conflict
3. introduction to the characters and the general problem with which the play deals
4. the first performance of the play on stage
5. When the speaker in a poem cannot be identified with the poet, that speaker is called:

1. a persona
2. a dramatis persona
3. a soliloquist
4. a ventriloquist
5. Which of these definitions best describes a lyric?

1. A short poem
2. a short poem in which the poet himself is speaking
3. a poem expressing a personal idea, feeling or mood
4. a poem divided into stanzas

Read the following extract from a poem to answer questions 13 and 14.

Among rocks, I am the loose one, among arrows, I am tehheart among daughters,

I am

the recluse, among sons, the one who dies young

13. What kind of repetition is used in the extract ?

1. anaphora
2. single word repetition
3. line repetition
4. phrase repetition
5. Apart from emphasis, what other effect does the repetition have?

1. makes the poem rhythmical
2. makes the poem tedious
3. makes the poem monotonous
4. ‘makes the poem exhilarating

15 The following line from poem Western wind, when will thou blow? Is an example of:

a rhetorical question b. caesura

c. alliteration d. nature imagery

16. identify the odd one out of these types of imagery

a. visual imagery b. tactile imagery

c. synaesthesia d. literal imagery

17. When a poet uses mainly soft vowel sounds in a poem, the texture of the poem is:

a. mellifluous b. harsh c. assonantal

d. neutral

18. The sounds in the following lines may be described as an example of: The moan of doves in immemorial elms, And murmuring of innumerable bees

a. Alliteration b. Euphony

c. Cacophony d. A mixture of all above

19. The man dies in him who keeps silent in the face of tyranny”. This statement can be

described as:

a. Metaphoric b. Literal

c. Tragic d. a simile

20. The literary technique in which a reader taken to the past of a current action is known

as:

a. rewinding b. fast forward

c. flashback d. repetition

21. One rhyme scheme typical of the English sonnet is

1. abba abba cde dee
2. abba abba cde cde
3. abab cdcd efef gg
4. abcd babb cde cc
5. Farce thrive on

a. big events b. absurdity

c. promotion Incidents

d. picture of a situation is

23. A short witty statement is an

a. epistle b. eulogy

c. epigram d. anecdote.

24. In a narration, the first person is

a. the author b. a participant

c. the publisher d. an observer

25. A literary device that creates a mental

a. imagery b. symbolism c. flashback

d. epilogue

26. “………..This is a Montague, our foe:

A villain, that is hither come in spit

To scorn at our solemnity this night, William Shakespeare: Romeo and Juliet I: V, 61 –

63”.

The speaker of the above except is a

1. Son of Lord Montague
2. Kinsman to the Prince
3. Nephew to Lady Capulet
4. Servant to Paris
5. In Gbemisola Adeoti’s “Naked Soles”, the expression “red milk of grief” means

a. wine b. Sea c. Ink d. Blood.

ANSWER KEY

1B 2A 3D 4 B 5 D 6D

7B 8 A 9 A 10 C 11 A 12 C

13 A 14 A 15 C 16 C 17 C 18B

19 B 20 C 21C 22 D 23C 24 A

25A 26 – 27

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ENGLISH 2009 POST UME TEST

Question 1 — 3 are based on Williams Shakespeare’s Romeo and Juliet

11. The multiple death in the play serve as a punishment for

1. Impatience on the part of Romeo and Juliet;
2. Imposing life partners on children
3. Disobedience of the protagonists
4. Tybalts’s fiery temper

2. Romeo’s death becomes inevitable because
   1. Eriar Lawrence’s letter is not delivered
   2. Juliet is married to Paris
   3. Romeo kills Tybalt in a duel
   4. Juliet has committed suicide
3. Before he met Juliet, Romeo was in love with
   1. Country Paris b. Rosaline

c. Benvolio d. Mercuito

Questions 4 — 5 are based on George orwell’s Nineteen Eighty four

4. Winston Smith begins his rebellion against the power of the state by
   1. Educating the youth
   2. Keeping a private dairy
   3. Purchasing arms
   4. Disobeying Big Brother

5 In the novel, Orwell attempts to

1. Eulogize the beauty of the socialist system
2. Condemn the disgusting hypocrisy of all communist systems
3. Satirize the artificiality of a machine controlled society
4. Deride the political lockjam in Nigeria

Question 6 — 7 are based on selected poems

6. The experts, of course Disagree

The urine test they ordered Said, Negative

The lines above from Acqah’s in the Novel of the soul depict

1. Awareness b. Progress d.
2. In Kunene’s A Heritage of Liberation, freedom is to be achieved through the efforts of
   1. The new generation
   2. The old generation
   3. Present generation
   4. Successive generations
3. This is my letter to the world That never wrote to me

The simple news nature told With tender majesty

Her message is committed To hands I cannot see

For love of her, sweet countrymen Judge tenderly of me

To whom does ‘her’inline 5 refers to

a. God b. Letter

c. World d. Nature

9. Characterization in a novel means the
   1. List of character featuring in it
   2. Peculiar mannerisms of the narrator’
   3. mode of presenting the fictional individuals d. List of those that act the novel
10. Caricature is used to

1. Censure an individual by emphasizing, his weakness
2. Expose the folly in literature
3. Ridicule a person by distorting his most prominent features
4. Elicit the artistic potential of dramatist
5. The branch of knowledge that places emphasis on beaty is Inevitability Contradiction

a. Philosophy b. Ode to pretty

c. Philology d. Aesthetics

12. As a literary form the short story is most closely related to

a. The discourse b. The novel

c. Story telling d. poetry

13. A poem written on a grand theme, in an appropriately grand style, dealing with heroic

figure is called

a. An epigram b. An epic

c. A soliloquy d. A heroic poem

14. The literary devise which uses riduicule to correct social ills is known as;

a. Anecdote b. Saturation

c. Hyperbole d. satire

15. The madman has entered our house with violence Defiling our sacred grounds

Claiming the single truth of the universe Bending down our priest with iron

Mazizi Kunene’s Progress

The imagery of the lines above captures the idea of

1. Coercion
2. Truth c. Religiosity

d. Persuasion

16. Behold her, single in the field Your solitary highland Lass

Reaping and singing by herself Step here, or gently pass

Alone she cuts and blinds the grain And sings a melancholy strain

O lis4en! For the vale profound Is overflowing with the sound

The rhyming scheme in the first stanza of “The solitary Reaper above is”

a. abchddee b. ababccdd

c. abcabcdd d. abebddef

17. Carreemed, These oily tears

Dripping down the tears on your depressed face

Will one day be staunched, I swear

The tone of the poet is

a. optimistic b. supplicatory

c. symphathetic d. piteous

18. what distinguishes poetry from other forms of literature is its

a. rhyme and verse b. rhythm and metaphor

c. emotion and feeling d. irony and paradox

19. Assonance in poetry is the repetition of

1. internal vowels in words
2. consonant sounds in words
3. final sounds at the end of a line
4. final sounds at the beginning of a line
5. There kneels a jigger, a house weevil, a flea, a bedbug! He is mistletoe, a parasite that

lives on the trees of other people’s lives! The speaker uses a sting of

a. metaphors b. parables

c. hyperboles e. riddles

21. As white people do you kiss her on the cheek

As you kiss her open — sore lips As white people do You suck slimy saliva From each

other’s mouths As white people do Okot P’Bitek’s song of Lanino The writer of the lines

above uses repetition to enhance irony

a. to underscore disapproval b. for emphasis c. for imitation

22. Mother, didn’t you hear me? I’ve brought the goat, hen and yams. Don’t you want

them any more? Why do you continue to look at me like that? I haven’t done anything

wrong again, have i? answer me, speak to me, mother!

The dominant mood in this passage is one of

a. Sadness b. Anxiety

c. Anger d. Nonchalance

23. The literary device which anticipates that an event will take place is best described as

1. Parody
2. flashback
3. foreshadowing
4. rising action
5. The major reason for Juliet’s grief is

1. the death Of her cousin
2. her reluctant marriage t Romeo
3. the banishment of her lover d her imminent death
4. Then suddenly her heart was whipped up, she now rode on strange waves: alone

defying the wind and the rain, alone, fighting hunger and thirst in the desert, alone,

struggling with strange demons in that forest bringing glad tidings to her people. The

mood of the lady in this passage is one

a. simple defiance b. defeat c. triumphant e. depression

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ENGLISH 2010 POST UME TEST

Questions 1 — 4 are based on JC de Graft’s Sons and Daughters.

1. The thematic pre — occupation of de Graft’s sons and Daughters’ can be summarized

as

1. The import of western education
2. The roles of women in modem economy
3. How to become a lawyer
4. Family life in the face of social changes
5. Lawyer Bonn in de Graft’s Sons and Daughters’ can be described as a
   1. Caring father b. Faithful husband

c. Deceitful friend d. Shrewd politician

3. De Graft’s sons and Dugthers is structured
4. The central conflict in de Grafts sons and Daughters is primarily
   1. Political b. Generational

c. Racial d. communal

Questions 5— 9 are base on Oyono’s Old Man and the Medal

5. He already had five wives and was soon going to break the antelope for the sixth

time”. The expression “break lungs of the antelope” means to:

1. Be on honeymoon
2. Offer ritual sacrifice
3. Hunt for antelopes
4. Have a new baby
5. The medal in Oyono’s the old man and the Medal is compensation to Meka for the loss

of his two sons and his:

1. House b. Horse

c. Land d. job

7. Kelara in Oyono’s The Old man and the medal is:
   1. Mvodo’s sister
   2. Commandants maid
   3. Meka’s wife
   4. Agatha’s cousin
8. In Oyono’s the Old Man and the Medal, Ignatius Obebe is a
   1. Driver b. Soldier

c. Carpenter d. Catechist

9. The medal in Oyono’s The Old man and The Medal us a symbol of:
   1. colonial deceit

h. African pride

c. Genuine reward for loyalty

d. Respect and honour

Question 10 — 14 are based on selected African poems

10. Dancing through blooming thorns in Gbemisola Adeoti’s Naked soles connotes

1. hoeing a field of thorns
2. dancing in a keen competition
3. being merry amidst suffering
4. playing flowers and plants
5. In gbemisolaAdeoti’s “naked soles”, the expression red milk of beef refers to:

1. wine
2. ink c. blood d. Palm oil

12. In Masidi Kunene’s “A Heritage of liberation”. This season refers to the period of
13. Eagle in Kunene’s A heritage of Liberation is a symbol of

a. deceit b. peace c. agility d. death

14. The tone in Gbemisola Adeoti’s Naked soles is that of

1. reconciliation
2. lamentation c. exhortation d. admiration Questions 15 — 16 are based on Non — African Poetry

15 The attitude of the poet — persona toward bats in D. H. Lawrence’s Bats is that of a.

revulsion b. veneration

3. admiration d. indifference

a. oppression b. c. migration d freedom resettlement

16. In China according to D.H. Lawrence, bats are symbols of

a. death b. birth

c. caution d. Joy

17. In Wendy Cope’s Sonnet VII, poetry is regarded as a God given weapon to:

a. Musicians b. recluses

c. nomads d. pilgrims

18. The greatest challenge to the poet — persona in Andrew Marvells “To his Coy

Mistress “ is

a. Chariot b. Love

c. Time d. Youth

Questions 19- 24 are based o literary Appreciation

19. The tone of the speaker in the excerpt above (Q 20) is that of

a. agony b.joy

c. fulfillment d. admonition.

20. But the pigs were so clever that they could think of a way around every difficulty. As

for the horses, they know every inch of the field and in fact understood the business of

mowing and raking’. The dominant literary device in the excerpt above.

a. repetition b. mimesis

c. ellipsis d. personification

21. The dairy maids and men had flocked down from their cottages and oils of the dairy

• house with the arrival of the cows from the meads: the maids walking in patterns, nor

on account of weather, but to keep their shoes above the mulch of the bats on”. The

setting of the above passage can be described as

a. Urban b. Celestial

c. Pastoral d. Religious

22. “0 mother, my mother! …“ How could I be expected to know I was a child when I left

this house four months ago. Why didn’t you tell me there was danger in men — folk?

Why didn’t you want me?” The speech above achieves its literary effect through the use

of:

a. litotes b. Onomatopoeia c. allusion

d. repetition

23. The animals saw no reason to disbelieve him’ especially as they could no longer

remember very clearly what conditions had been like before the rebellion. All the same,

there were days when they felt that they would sooner have had less figures and more

food’ The tone of the passage above is quite: a. exhilarating b. cynical c. optimistic d. obsequious

24. We are tired of waiting for another war Our trees their leaves have shed

The winter has come and gone

Spring flowers have blossomed and withered

In line 2 of the poem above, the poet uses:

a. Ellipsis b. Alliteration

c. Inversion d. Oxymoron

25. I come and go A pilgrim Grubbily unkempt

Stubbornly cheerful Defiantly whistling hope

And grubbing for crumbs of success Out of all near defeats.

The poet personal in the poem above is:

1. Resigned to fate
2. A holy man
3. A daily traveler
4. Suffering but optimistic

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY 2006 POST UME TEST

BIOLOGY

1. An amoeba moving towards a crumb of cake in a pond most likely exhibits

(a) phototropism (b) chemotaxis (c) thermotaxis (d) nastic movement

2. Which of the following cells would most probably contain the greatest number of

Golgi bodies

(a) muscle cell (b) secretor cell (c) nerve cell (d) white blood cell

3. A group of similar cells performing the same function is

(a) an enzyme (b) an organ (c) a tissue (d) an organelle

4. Structures founding cells are listed below:

i) cell wall ii) cell membrane iii) chloroplast iv) cytoplasm

v) nucleus vi) sap vacuole

Which of these structures are found in both animal cells and plant cells?

(a) i, ii and v (b) i, iii and v

(c) ii, iii and v (d) ii, iv and v

5. Which of the following is not present in the nucleus of a cell?

(a) chromosomes (b) nucleolus

(c) mitochondrion (d) genes

6. A plant which grows on another plant without apparent harm to the host plant is

1. a parasite (c) saprophyte
2. epiphyte (d) a predator
3. The petals of a flower are collectively called

1. calyx (c) carpel
2. capsule (d) corolla
3. Osmosis can be defined as diffusion of

1. water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
2. water molecules from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution across a permeable membrane

3. water molecules from a concentrated solution to a dilute solution through a

semi-permeable membrane.

4. water molecules from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution through a

semi-permeable membrane.

Chiorophyl H

9. The oxygen given off during the process in the above equation is derived from

(a) sunlight (b) water

(c) carbon dioxide (d) atmosphere

10. When testing a leaf for starch, why is it first placed in boiling water?

1. to extract the chlorophyll
2. to remove colour from the leaf
3. to dissolve the starch
4. to stop chemical reactions
5. Each of the following is an arthropod except the

(a) crab (b) scorpion (c) spider (d) snail

12. The largest phylum in the animal kingdom is

(a) cnidaria (b) Mollusca (c) chordate

13. With reference to the figure above, which of these are correct?

1. I and II are proglottides and hooks
2. I and III are rostellum and suckers
3. III and IV are hooks and proglittides
4. II and IV are hooks and rostellum
5. The two species of human tapeworm can be distinguished by the presence or absence of

(a) scolex (b) hook (c) head (d) sucker

15. The ventricles of the mammalian heart are more muscular than the auricles because the

(a) auricles have smaller capacity (b) ventricles are larger in size (c) ventricles

pump blood to distant organs (d) ventricles receive more blood.

16. Which of the following statement is not correct about the function of each group

of mammalian vertebrate?

1. caudal viiebrae support the tail and provide attachment for tail muscles
2. thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs
3. lumber vertebrae provide attachment for abdominal muscles.
4. sacral vertebrae support the skull and allow nodding and rotating of movement.
5. In the adult toad, gaseous exchange takes place through

1. Buccal, skin and spiracle
2. buccal cavity, bladder and lungs
3. buccal cavity, skin and lungs
4. gills, skin and buccal cavity.
5. The foot of the bird shown below is strong and has strong claws on its digits.

This implies that the bird

(a) is a scavenger (b)is a bird of prey

3. uses the foot to supplement wing action
4. uses the foot to scratch the soil
5. Which of the following is not a means of conservation?

1. replacing harvested mature timber trees with their seedlings
2. prevention of poaching
3. controlling excessive deforestation
4. burning of vegetation before cropping
5. One of the following statements is not true of viruses

(a) they are micro-organisms (b) they are smaller than bacteria

3. they can be seen with an ordinary light microscope
4. they cause tobacco disease, polio and smallpox
5. The brain and the spinal cord constitute the

1. autonomic nervous system
2. sympathetic nervous system
3. somatic nervous system
4. central nervous system
5. Which of the following parts of the mammalian brain is involved in taking the

decision to run rather than walk?

(a) cerebellum (b) medulla oblongata

(c) midbrain (d) cerebrum

23. Which part of the ear is responsible for the maintenance of balance?

(a) cochlea (b) tympanic membrane

(c) Eustachian tube (d) semi-circular canals

Answer Key

1. B 6.B 11.D 16.D 21.D

2. B 7.D 12.D 17.D 22.D

3. C 8.D 13.B 18.A 23.D

4. D 8.B 14.B 19.D

5. C 10.D 15.C 20.C

EXPLANATION TO ANSWER

1. A directional movement in which the whole organism moves is called a TAXIS. Therefore, an amoeba will move the whole body toward a crumb cake (food) by taxis movement (B)
2. Golgi bodies — as concerned with the production of substances by this cell. Nearly all cell secretions are glycoproteins, i.e. proteins conjugated with a carbohydrate. i.e. Golgi-body will be concentrated in the environment of secretory

cell (B)

3. Tissue is a group of cell that have similar structures and performing a particular

function e.g. bone, blood of man (C)

4. Animal cell do not have cellulose cell wall, c hioroplast and sap vacuole. The correct option

is D.

5. Mitochondrion is one of the organelle in the cytoplasm and not in the nucleus (C)
6. Epiphyte grow on their host to get direet sunlight (B)
7. The collection of flower is called corrolla (D)
8. Osmosis the movement of any solvent molecule through a semi-permeable membrane from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration

(D) e.g. high water concentration to low water concentration.

9. 4H20 + chlorophyll —> 4(OH) + 4H) 4(OH) —> 2H2O + O2

The oxygen produced during photosynthesis comes from water (B)

10. i.e. to kill and softenthe tissue (D)
11. Snail is mollusca (D)
12. The arthropoda is the largest phylum in the animal kingdom. It is divided into the

following classes: insect, crustacea, arachinida and myriapoda (D)

13. I- is Rostellum, II is the Hook, III is Sucker, 1V is proglottis (B)
14. Taenia solium has rostellum and hooks while Taena saginata lack rostellum and

hooks (B)

15. The wall of the right ventricle are made of muscle but not quite so thick as the left

ventricle (both are thicker than auricle). The right reticule contracts, forcing blood

to close the tricuspid valve so that blood can only leave the ventricle by other

opening into the pulmonary artery (C).

16. Sacral is not at the head region, it is located at the inner abdomen (D)
17. Adult toad do not have gills, the gaseous exchange is through the skin, lung and

buccal cavity (mouth) (D)

18. This is for scavenger (e.g. vulture) (A)
19. Burning of vegetation before cropping will kill the microorganism and change the ecosystem (D)
20. Viruses can not be seen with ordinary light microscope, electron microscope have

to be employed (C)

21. Brain & spinal cord make up central nervous system (D).
22. Cerebrum controls all voluntary actions like learning, intelligence, thinking, imagination and memory which are aspect of intelligent behaviour (D),
23. The inner ear, which is fluid filled has a complicated structure. It has an upper end with the three semi-circular canal at right angles to one another, are organs

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY 2007 POST UME TEST

BIOLOGY

1. The movement of an amoeba towards a crumb of cake in a pond is most likely due to: (a) phototropism (b) chemotaxis (c) thermotaxis (d) nastic movement
2. Which of the following cells would most probably contain the greatest number of Golgi bodies? (a) muscle cell (b) secretory cell (c) nerve cell (d) white blood cell
3. A group of similar cells performing the same function is: (a) an enzyme (b) an organ (c) a tissue (d) an organelle
4. Structures found in cells are listed below: i) cell wall ii) cell membrane iii) chloroplast iv) cytoplasm v) nucleus vi) sap vacuole Which of these structures are found in both animal cells and plant cells? (a) i, ii and v (b) i, iii and v (c) ii, iii and v (d) ii, iv and v
5. Which of the following is not present in the nucleus of a cell? (a) chromosomes (b) nucleolus (c) mitochondrion (d) genes
6. A plant which grows on another plant without apparent harm to the host plant is: (a) a parasite (b) a saprophyte (c) an epiphyte (d) a predator
7. The petals of a flower are collectively called: (a) calyx (b) carpel (c) capsule (d) corolla
8. Osmosis can be defined as the diffusion of: (a) water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. (b) water molecules from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution across a permeable membrane. (c) water molecules from a concentrated solution to a dilute solution through a semi-permeable membrane. (d) water molecules from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution through a semi-permeable membrane.
9. The oxygen given off during the process of photosynthesis is derived from: (a) sunlight (b) water (c) carbon dioxide (d) atmosphere
10. When testing a leaf for starch, why is it first placed in boiling water? (a) to extract the chlorophyll (b) to remove colour from the leaf (c) to dissolve the starch (d) to stop chemical reactions
11. Each of the following is an arthropod except the: (a) crab (b) scorpion (c) spider (d) snail
12. The largest phylum in the animal kingdom is: (a) cnidaria (b) Mollusca (c) chordata (d) arthropoda
13. With reference to the figure above, which of these are correct? (a) I and II are proglottides and hooks (b) I and III are rostellum and suckers (c) III and IV are hooks and proglottides (d) II and IV are hooks and rostellum
14. The two species of human tapeworm can be distinguished by the presence or absence of: (a) scolex (b) hook (c) head (d) sucker
15. The ventricles of the mammalian heart are more muscular than the auricles because the: (a) auricles have smaller capacity (b) ventricles are larger in size (c) ventricles pump blood to distant organs (d) ventricles receive more blood.
16. Which of the following statements is not correct about the function of each group of mammalian vertebrate? (a) caudal vertebrae support the tail and provide attachment for tail muscles (b) thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs (c) lumbar vertebrae provide attachment for abdominal muscles (d) sacral vertebrae support the skull and allow nodding and rotating movement
17. In the adult toad, gaseous exchange takes place through: (a) buccal cavity, bladder and lungs (b) buccal cavity, skin and lungs (c) gills, skin and buccal cavity (d) buccal, skin and spiracle
18. The foot of the bird shown below is strong and has strong claws on its digits. This implies that the bird: (a) is a scavenger (b) is a bird of prey (c) uses the foot to supplement wing action (d) uses the foot to scratch the soil
19. Which of the following is not a means of conservation? (a) replacing harvested mature timber trees with their seedlings (b) prevention of poaching (c) controlling excessive deforestation (d) burning of vegetation before cropping
20. One of the following statements is not true of viruses: (a) they are micro-organisms (b) they are smaller than bacteria (c) they can be seen with an ordinary light microscope (d) they cause tobacco disease, polio and smallpox
21. The brain and the spinal cord constitute the: (a) autonomic nervous system (b) sympathetic nervous system (c) somatic nervous system (d) central nervous system
22. Which of the following parts of the mammalian brain is involved in taking the decision to run rather than walk? (a) cerebellum (b) medulla oblongata (c) midbrain (d) cerebrum
23. Which part of the ear is responsible for the maintenance of balance? (a) cochlea (b) tympanic membrane (c) Eustachian tube (d) semi-circular canals

Answer Key

1. B
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. C
7. D
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. D
12. D
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. B
18. B
19. D
20. C
21. D
22. D
23. D

Solution

1. The movement of an amoeba towards a crumb of cake in a pond is most likely due to:
   • (a) Phototropism: Incorrect. Phototropism is the movement of an organism in response to light.
   • (b) Chemotaxis: Correct. Chemotaxis is the movement of an organism in response to a chemical stimulus, such as food.
   • (c) Thermotaxis: Incorrect. Thermotaxis is the movement in response to temperature changes.
   • (d) Nastic Movement: Incorrect. Nastic movements are non-directional responses to stimuli such as touch or temperature.
2. Which of the following cells would most probably contain the greatest number of Golgi bodies?
   • (a) Muscle cell: Incorrect. Muscle cells have numerous mitochondria for energy but not many Golgi bodies.
   • (b) Secretory cell: Correct. Secretory cells have a high number of Golgi bodies to process and package substances for secretion.
   • (c) Nerve cell: Incorrect. Nerve cells have specialized structures like axons and dendrites, but not a high number of Golgi bodies.
   • (d) White blood cell: Incorrect. White blood cells have lysosomes for breaking down pathogens, not a high number of Golgi bodies.
3. A group of similar cells performing the same function is:
   • (a) An enzyme: Incorrect. Enzymes are proteins that act as catalysts in biochemical reactions.
   • (b) An organ: Incorrect. An organ is a group of tissues working together to perform specific functions.
   • (c) A tissue: Correct. A tissue is a group of similar cells that perform a specific function.
   • (d) An organelle: Incorrect. Organelles are structures within a cell that perform specific functions.
4. Structures found in cells are listed below: i) cell wall ii) cell membrane iii) chloroplast iv) cytoplasm v) nucleus vi) sap vacuole. Which of these structures are found in both animal cells and plant cells?
   • (a) i, ii and v: Incorrect. Animal cells do not have cell walls.
   • (b) i, iii and v: Incorrect. Animal cells do not have cell walls or chloroplasts.
   • (c) ii, iii and v: Incorrect. Animal cells do not have chloroplasts.
   • (d) ii, iv and v: Correct. Both animal and plant cells have cell membranes, cytoplasm, and nuclei.
5. Which of the following is not present in the nucleus of a cell?
   • (a) Chromosomes: Incorrect. Chromosomes are structures within the nucleus containing DNA.
   • (b) Nucleolus: Incorrect. The nucleolus is a structure within the nucleus involved in ribosome production.
   • (c) Mitochondrion: Correct. Mitochondria are organelles found in the cytoplasm, not in the nucleus.
   • (d) Genes: Incorrect. Genes are located on chromosomes within the nucleus.
6. A plant which grows on another plant without apparent harm to the host plant is:
   • (a) A parasite: Incorrect. Parasites harm the host plant.
   • (b) A saprophyte: Incorrect. Saprophytes feed on dead or decaying organic matter.
   • (c) An epiphyte: Correct. Epiphytes grow on other plants without harming them.
   • (d) A predator: Incorrect. Predators are organisms that hunt and consume other organisms.
7. The petals of a flower are collectively called:
   • (a) Calyx: Incorrect. The calyx is the collective term for the sepals.
   • (b) Carpel: Incorrect. The carpel is the female reproductive part of the flower.
   • (c) Capsule: Incorrect. A capsule is a type of dry fruit that releases seeds.
   • (d) Corolla: Correct. The corolla is the collective term for the petals.
8. Osmosis can be defined as the diffusion of:
   • (a) Water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration: Incorrect. This describes simple diffusion, not osmosis specifically.
   • (b) Water molecules from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution across a permeable membrane: Incorrect. Osmosis occurs through a semi-permeable membrane.
   • (c) Water molecules from a concentrated solution to a dilute solution through a semi-permeable membrane: Incorrect. Osmosis involves movement from a dilute to a concentrated solution.
   • (d) Water molecules from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution through a semi-permeable membrane: Correct. This is the proper definition of osmosis.
9. The oxygen given off during the process of photosynthesis is derived from:
   • (a) Sunlight: Incorrect. Sunlight provides energy but is not a source of oxygen.
   • (b) Water: Correct. The splitting of water molecules during photosynthesis releases oxygen.
   • (c) Carbon dioxide: Incorrect. Carbon dioxide is used in the production of glucose, not oxygen.
   • (d) Atmosphere: Incorrect. The atmosphere contains oxygen but is not the source of the oxygen released in photosynthesis.
10. When testing a leaf for starch, why is it first placed in boiling water?
    • (a) To extract the chlorophyll: Incorrect. Chlorophyll is removed in alcohol, not boiling water.
    • (b) To remove color from the leaf: Incorrect. Boiling water does not remove the color; alcohol does.
    • (c) To dissolve the starch: Incorrect. Starch is not dissolved by boiling water.
    • (d) To stop chemical reactions: Correct. Boiling water kills the leaf cells, stopping all chemical reactions.
11. Each of the following is an arthropod except the:
    • (a) Crab: Incorrect. Crabs are crustaceans, a subgroup of arthropods.
    • (b) Scorpion: Incorrect. Scorpions are arachnids, a subgroup of arthropods.
    • (c) Spider: Incorrect. Spiders are arachnids, a subgroup of arthropods.
    • (d) Snail: Correct. Snails are mollusks, not arthropods.
12. The largest phylum in the animal kingdom is:
    • (a) Cnidaria: Incorrect. Cnidaria includes jellyfish and corals, not the largest phylum.
    • (b) Mollusca: Incorrect. Mollusca includes snails and octopuses, not the largest phylum.
    • (c) Chordata: Incorrect. Chordata includes vertebrates, but it is not the largest phylum.
    • (d) Arthropoda: Correct. Arthropoda is the largest phylum, including insects, crustaceans, and arachnids.
13. With reference to the figure above, which of these are correct?
    • (a) I and II are proglottides and hooks: Incorrect. I and II are not proglottides and hooks.
    • (b) I and III are rostellum and suckers: Correct. I is the rostellum and III are the suckers.
    • (c) III and IV are hooks and proglottides: Incorrect. III is not a hook, and IV is not a proglottide.
    • (d) II and IV are hooks and rostellum: Incorrect. II is not a hook, and IV is not the rostellum.
14. The two species of human tapeworm can be distinguished by the presence or absence of:
    • (a) Scolex: Incorrect. Both species have a scolex.
    • (b) Hook: Correct. The presence or absence of hooks is a distinguishing feature.
    • (c) Head: Incorrect. Both species have a head.
    • (d) Sucker: Incorrect. Both species have suckers.
15. The ventricles of the mammalian heart are more muscular than the auricles because the:
    • (a) Auricles have smaller capacity: Incorrect. The capacity does not determine the muscularity.
    • (b) Ventricles are larger in size: Incorrect. Size alone does not account for muscularity.
    • (c) Ventricles pump blood to distant organs: Correct. Ventricles need to be more muscular to pump blood throughout the body.
    • (d) Ventricles receive more blood: Incorrect. The amount of blood received does not determine the muscularity.
16. Which of the following statements is not correct about the function of each group of mammalian vertebrate?
    • (a) Caudal vertebrae support the tail and provide attachment for tail muscles: Correct.
    • (b) Thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs: Correct.
    • (c) Lumbar vertebrae provide attachment for abdominal muscles: Correct.
    • (d) Sacral vertebrae support the skull and allow nodding and rotating movement: Incorrect. Sacral vertebrae do not support the skull; the cervical vertebrae do.
17. In the adult toad, gaseous exchange takes place through:
    • (a) Buccal cavity, bladder and lungs: Incorrect. The bladder is not involved in gaseous exchange.
    • (b) Buccal cavity, skin and lungs: Correct. These are the main sites for gaseous exchange in toads.
    • (c) Gills, skin and buccal cavity: Incorrect. Adult toads do not have gills.
    • (d) Buccal, skin and spiracle: Incorrect. Spiracles are found in insects, not toads.
18. The foot of the bird shown below is strong and has strong claws on its digits. This implies that the bird:
    • (a) Is a scavenger: Incorrect. Scavengers typically do not have strong claws.
    • (b) Is a bird of prey: Correct. Birds of prey have strong claws for catching and holding prey.
    • (c) Uses the foot to supplement wing action: Incorrect. Foot strength does not directly supplement wing action.
    • (d) Uses the foot to scratch the soil: Incorrect. Birds that scratch the soil typically have less robust claws.

19. Which of the following is not a means of conservation?
    • (a) Replacing harvested mature timber trees with their seedlings: Correct.
    • (b) Prevention of poaching: Correct.
    • (c) Controlling excessive deforestation: Correct.
    • (d) Burning of vegetation before cropping: Incorrect. Burning vegetation can lead to habitat destruction and is not a means of conservation.
20. One of the following statements is not true of viruses:
    • (a) They are micro-organisms: Correct. Viruses are considered micro-organisms.
    • (b) They are smaller than bacteria: Correct. Viruses are indeed smaller than bacteria.
    • (c) They can be seen with an ordinary light microscope: Incorrect. Viruses cannot be seen with a light microscope; they require an electron microscope.
    • (d) They cause tobacco disease, polio and smallpox: Correct. Viruses are known to cause these diseases.
21. The brain and the spinal cord constitute the:
    • (a) Autonomic nervous system: Incorrect. The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary actions and is part of the peripheral nervous system.
    • (b) Sympathetic nervous system: Incorrect. The sympathetic nervous system is a part of the autonomic nervous system.
    • (c) Somatic nervous system: Incorrect. The somatic nervous system controls voluntary movements and is part of the peripheral nervous system.
    • (d) Central nervous system: Correct. The brain and spinal cord together make up the central nervous system.
22. Which of the following parts of the mammalian brain is involved in taking the decision to run rather than walk?
    • (a) Cerebellum: Incorrect. The cerebellum coordinates movement but does not make decisions.
    • (b) Medulla oblongata: Incorrect. The medulla oblongata controls autonomic functions like breathing and heart rate.
    • (c) Midbrain: Incorrect. The midbrain controls vision and hearing but does not make decisions.
    • (d) Cerebrum: Correct. The cerebrum is responsible for higher brain functions, including decision-making.
23. Which part of the ear is responsible for the maintenance of balance?
    • (a) Cochlea: Incorrect. The cochlea is involved in hearing.
    • (b) Tympanic membrane: Incorrect. The tympanic membrane (eardrum) transmits sound vibrations.
    • (c) Eustachian tube: Incorrect. The Eustachian tube equalizes pressure in the middle ear.
    • (d) Semi-circular canals: Correct. The semi-circular canals contain fluid and sensory hair cells that detect head movement and help maintain balance.

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY 2008 POST UME TEST

1. One of the functions of xylem:
   • (a) Strengthening the stem
   • (b) Manufacturing food
   • (c) Conducting manufactured food
   • (d) None of the above.
2. People suffering from myopia:
   • (a) Can see near objects clearly
   • (b) Can see far away objects clearly
   • (c) Cannot see any object clearly
   • (d) Are colour-blind
3. The cilia in paramecium are used for:
   • (a) Respiration
   • (b) Locomotion
   • (c) Protection
   • (d) Excretion
4. Which of these types of skeleton is most appropriate to the cockroach?
   • (a) Hydrostatic skeleton
   • (b) Exoskeleton
   • (c) Endoskeleton
   • (d) Cartilaginous skeleton
5. When proteins are broken down they provide:
   • (a) Oxygen
   • (b) Carbohydrate
   • (c) Energy
   • (d) Amino acids
6. The function of lenticel is:
   • (a) To receive excess water in the plant
   • (b) To absorb water from the atmosphere
   • (c) For gaseous exchange
   • (d) To absorb light
7. Which of the following is characteristic of the animal cell:
   • (a) Presence of chloroplasts
   • (b) Possession of a cellulose cell wall
   • (c) Absence of large vacuoles
   • (d) Presence of large vacuoles
8. In the life history of Schistosoma (Bilharzia), the intermediate host is:
   • (a) Man
   • (b) Snail
   • (c) Mosquito larva
   • (d) Fish
9. The hormone which tones up the muscles of a person in the time of danger is from the:
   • (a) Thyroid gland
   • (b) Pancreas
   • (c) Adrenal gland
   • (d) Spleen
10. The study of the organisms and the environment of an abandoned farmland is the ecology of:
    • (a) A community
    • (b) A population
    • (c) A species
    • (d) An ecosystem
11. At fertilization:
    • (a) One chromosome from the male joins another from the female
    • (b) One gene from the male combines with the other from the female
    • (c) The male nucleus fuses with the female nucleus
    • (d) One set of chromosomes combines with another set from the female
12. The neck region of the tapeworm (Taenia spp.) is responsible for:
    • (a) Production of eggs
    • (b) Storage of eggs
    • (c) Formation of new segments
    • (d) Development of the suckers
13. The movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration is:
    • (a) Diffusion
    • (b) Transpiration
    • (c) Osmosis
    • (d) Plasmolysis
14. The region of cell division in a root is:
    • (a) Root cap
    • (b) Endodermis
    • (c) Xylem
    • (d) Meristem
15. Which of the following is not an excretory organ?
    • (a) Lungs
    • (b) Kidney
    • (c) Leaf
    • (d) Large intestine
16. The part of the mammalian brain responsible for maintaining balance is:
    • (a) Medulla oblongata
    • (b) Cerebellum
    • (c) Optic lobe
    • (d) Cerebrum
17. A sugar solution was boiled with Fehling’s solutions A and B and the colour remained blue. The sugar tested was:
    • (a) Glucose
    • (b) Maltose
    • (c) Fructose
    • (d) Sucrose
18. The blood vessel which carries digested food from the small intestine to the liver is:
    • (a) Renal vein
    • (b) Renal artery
    • (c) Hepatic artery
    • (d) Hepatic portal vein
19. The maize grain is regarded as a fruit and not a seed because:
    • (a) It is covered by a sheath of leaves
    • (b) The testa and fruit wall fuse after fertilization
    • (c) It has both endosperm and cotyledon
    • (d) The pericarp and seed coat are separate
20. Identical twins are produced under one of the following conditions:
    • (a) Two ova fertilized at the same time by the sperm
    • (b) One ovum fertilized, divides to give two embryos
    • (c) Two ova fertilized by one sperm
    • (d) One ovum fertilized by two sperms
21. Which of the following hormones is produced during fright or when agitated?
    • (a) Insulin
    • (b) Adrenalin
    • (c) Thyroxine
    • (d) Pituitary
22. In the food chain “Grasses — Grasshopper — Lizards — Snakes — Hawks,” the organisms which are the least in number are:
    • (a) Grasses
    • (b) Hawks
    • (c) Lizards
    • (d) Snakes
23. One significant difference between roots and stems is that:
    • (a) Branch roots originate in the pericycle while branch stems do not
    • (b) Stems are always below the ground while roots are always under the ground
    • (c) Stems are positively geotropic while roots are negatively geotropic
    • (d) Stems are sometimes used for storage while roots are never so used
24. The arrangements below are steps in protein digestion. Which is the correct sequence?
    • (a) A — polypeptides, B — protein, C — amino acids, D — peptones
    • (b) C — D — A — B
    • (c) B — C — A — D
    • (d) B — D — A — C

Solution Section

1. One of the functions of xylem:
   • (a) Strengthening the stem: Incorrect. While xylem does provide support, its primary function is not strengthening the stem.
   • (b) Manufacturing food: Incorrect. Food is manufactured by the leaves through photosynthesis.
   • (c) Conducting manufactured food: Incorrect. Conducting manufactured food is the function of phloem, not xylem.
   • (d) None of the above: Correct. Xylem’s primary function is to conduct water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant.
2. People suffering from myopia:
   • (a) Can see near objects clearly: Correct. Myopia, or nearsightedness, allows people to see nearby objects clearly but not distant ones.
   • (b) Can see far away objects clearly: Incorrect. Myopia affects the ability to see distant objects clearly.
   • (c) Cannot see any object clearly: Incorrect. People with myopia can see near objects clearly.
   • (d) Are colour-blind: Incorrect. Myopia affects vision clarity, not color perception.
3. The cilia in paramecium are used for:
   • (a) Respiration: Incorrect. Cilia are not used for respiration in paramecium.
   • (b) Locomotion: Correct. Cilia are used for movement.
   • (c) Protection: Incorrect. Cilia do not primarily serve a protective function.
   • (d) Excretion: Incorrect. Cilia are not involved in excretion.
4. Which of these types of skeleton is most appropriate to the cockroach?
   • (a) Hydrostatic skeleton: Incorrect. Hydrostatic skeletons are found in soft-bodied animals like worms.
   • (b) Exoskeleton: Correct. Cockroaches have an exoskeleton, which is a rigid outer shell.
   • (c) Endoskeleton: Incorrect. Endoskeletons are internal skeletons, found in vertebrates.
   • (d) Cartilaginous skeleton: Incorrect. Cartilaginous skeletons are found in some fish, like sharks.
5. When proteins are broken down they provide:
   • (a) Oxygen: Incorrect. Proteins do not provide oxygen when broken down.
   • (b) Carbohydrate: Incorrect. Proteins do not break down into carbohydrates.
   • (c) Energy: Incorrect. While proteins can be used for energy, they primarily provide amino acids.
   • (d) Amino acids: Correct. Proteins break down into amino acids.
6. The function of lenticel is:
   • (a) To receive excess water in the plant: Incorrect. Lenticels do not receive water.
   • (b) To absorb water from the atmosphere: Incorrect. Lenticels are not involved in water absorption.
   • (c) For gaseous exchange: Correct. Lenticels facilitate gas exchange in plants.
   • (d) To absorb light: Incorrect. Lenticels do not absorb light; that is the function of chloroplasts.
7. Which of the following is characteristic of the animal cell:
   • (a) Presence of chloroplasts: Incorrect. Chloroplasts are found in plant cells, not animal cells.
   • (b) Possession of a cellulose cell wall: Incorrect. Cellulose cell walls are found in plant cells.
   • (c) Absence of large vacuoles: Correct. Animal cells typically have small vacuoles.
   • (d) Presence of large vacuoles: Incorrect. Large vacuoles are characteristic of plant cells.
8. In the life history of Schistosoma (Bilharzia), the intermediate host is:
   • (a) Man: Incorrect. Humans are the definitive host.
   • (b) Snail: Correct. Snails act as the intermediate host for Schistosoma.
   • (c) Mosquito larva: Incorrect. Mosquito larvae are not involved in the life cycle of Schistosoma.
   • (d) Fish: Incorrect. Fish are not involved in the life cycle of Schistosoma.
9. The hormone which tones up the muscles of a person in the time of danger is from the:
   • (a) Thyroid gland: Incorrect. The thyroid gland regulates metabolism.
   • (b) Pancreas: Incorrect. The pancreas regulates blood sugar levels.
   • (c) Adrenal gland: Correct. The adrenal gland secretes adrenaline, which tones up muscles in response to danger.
   • (d) Spleen: Incorrect. The spleen is involved in blood filtration and immune response.
10. The study of the organisms and the environment of an abandoned farmland is the ecology of:
    • (a) A community: Correct. The study of interactions between species in a specific area is community ecology.
    • (b) A population: Incorrect. Population ecology studies individuals of the same species.
    • (c) A species: Incorrect. Species ecology focuses on a single species across various environments.
    • (d) An ecosystem: Incorrect. Ecosystem ecology includes both living and non-living components of an environment.
11. At fertilization:
    • (a) One chromosome from the male joins another from the female: Incorrect. Chromosomes do not join individually.
    • (b) One gene from the male combines with the other from the female: Incorrect. Genes do not combine directly; they are inherited.
    • (c) The male nucleus fuses with the female nucleus: Correct. Fertilization involves the fusion of the male and female nuclei.
    • (d) One set of chromosomes combines with another set from the female: Incorrect. Each parent contributes a haploid set of chromosomes, forming a diploid zygote.
12. The neck region of the tapeworm (Taenia spp.) is responsible for:
    • (a) Production of eggs: Incorrect. Eggs are produced in the gravid proglottids.
    • (b) Storage of eggs: Incorrect. Eggs are stored in the gravid proglottids.
    • (c) Formation of new segments: Correct. The neck region, or the germinative zone, produces new segments (proglottids).
    • (d) Development of the suckers: Incorrect. Suckers are developed in the scolex.
13. The movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration is:
    • (a) Diffusion: Correct. Diffusion is the movement of molecules from higher to lower concentration.
    • (b) Transpiration: Incorrect. Transpiration is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts.
    • (c) Osmosis: Incorrect. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules through a semi-permeable membrane from a dilute to a concentrated solution.
    • (d) Plasmolysis: Incorrect. Plasmolysis is the process in which cells lose water in a hypertonic solution.
14. The region of cell division in a root is:
    • (a) Root cap: Incorrect. The root cap protects the growing tip of the root.
    • (b) Endodermis: Incorrect. The endodermis regulates the flow of water and nutrients.
    • (c) Xylem: Incorrect. The xylem transports water and nutrients.
    • (d) Meristem: Correct. The meristem is the region of active cell division in a root.
15. Which of the following is not an excretory organ?
    • (a) Lungs: Incorrect. Lungs are excretory organs as they expel carbon dioxide.
    • (b) Kidney: Incorrect. The kidneys are primary excretory organs.
    • (c) Leaf: Correct. Leaves are not excretory organs.
    • (d) Large intestine: Incorrect. The large intestine is involved in the excretion of waste.
16. The part of the mammalian brain responsible for maintaining balance is:
    • (a) Medulla oblongata: Incorrect. The medulla oblongata controls autonomic functions.
    • (b) Cerebellum: Correct. The cerebellum is responsible for maintaining balance and coordination.
    • (c) Optic lobe: Incorrect. The optic lobe is involved in vision.
    • (d) Cerebrum: Incorrect. The cerebrum is responsible for higher brain functions.
17. A sugar solution was boiled with Fehling’s solutions A and B and the colour remained blue. The sugar tested was:
    • (a) Glucose: Incorrect. Glucose would reduce Fehling’s solution, changing its color.
    • (b) Maltose: Incorrect. Maltose would reduce Fehling’s solution, changing its color.
    • (c) Fructose: Incorrect. Fructose would reduce Fehling’s solution, changing its color.
    • (d) Sucrose: Correct. Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar and would not change the color of Fehling’s solution.
18. The blood vessel which carries digested food from the small intestine to the liver is:
    • (a) Renal vein: Incorrect. The renal vein carries blood from the kidneys.
    • (b) Renal artery: Incorrect. The renal artery supplies blood to the kidneys.
    • (c) Hepatic artery: Incorrect. The hepatic artery supplies oxygenated blood to the liver.
    • (d) Hepatic portal vein: Correct. The hepatic portal vein carries nutrient-rich blood from the small intestine to the liver.
19. The maize grain is regarded as a fruit and not a seed because:
    • (a) It is covered by a sheath of leaves: Incorrect. This is not the reason maize grain is considered a fruit.
    • (b) The testa and fruit wall fuse after fertilization: Correct. The fusion of the testa and fruit wall is why maize grain is considered a fruit.
    • (c) It has both endosperm and cotyledon: Incorrect. This does not determine if it is a fruit.
    • (d) The pericarp and seed coat are separate: Incorrect. This is not the correct reasoning.
20. Identical twins are produced under one of the following conditions:
    • (a) Two ova fertilized at the same time by the sperm: Incorrect. This results in fraternal twins.
    • (b) One ovum fertilized, divides to give two embryos: Correct. Identical twins result from one fertilized egg splitting into two embryos.
    • (c) Two ova fertilized by one sperm: Incorrect. This is not possible.
    • (d) One ovum fertilized by two sperms: Incorrect. This is not possible and would not produce twins.
21. Which of the following hormones is produced during fright or when agitated?
    • (a) Insulin: Incorrect. Insulin regulates blood sugar levels.
    • (b) Adrenalin: Correct. Adrenalin is produced in response to stress or fright.
    • (c) Thyroxine: Incorrect. Thyroxine regulates metabolism.
    • (d) Pituitary: Incorrect. The pituitary gland secretes various hormones but not adrenalin.
22. In the food chain “Grasses — Grasshopper — Lizards — Snakes — Hawks,” the organisms which are the least in number are:
    • (a) Grasses: Incorrect. Grasses are producers and are usually the most numerous.
    • (b) Hawks: Correct. Hawks, being top predators, are usually the least numerous.
    • (c) Lizards: Incorrect. Lizards are more numerous than hawks.
    • (d) Snakes: Incorrect. Snakes are more numerous than hawks.
23. One significant difference between roots and stems is that:
    • (a) Branch roots originate in the pericycle while branch stems do not: Correct. This is a key difference.
    • (b) Stems are always below the ground while roots are always under the ground: Incorrect. Stems can be above or below ground.
    • (c) Stems are positively geotropic while roots are negatively geotropic: Incorrect. Stems are negatively geotropic (grow upwards) and roots are positively geotropic (grow downwards).
    • (d) Stems are sometimes used for storage while roots are never so used: Incorrect. Roots can also be used for storage.
24. The arrangements below are steps in protein digestion. Which is the correct sequence?
    • (a) A — polypeptides, B — protein, C — amino acids, D — peptones: Incorrect. This sequence is incorrect.
    • (b) C — D — A — B: Incorrect. This sequence is incorrect.
    • (c) B — C — A — D: Incorrect. This sequence is incorrect.
    • (d) B — D — A — C: Correct. This is the correct sequence of protein digestion.
25. Partially digested food ready to leave the stomach is called:
    • (a) Chyme: Correct. Chyme is the partially digested food that moves from the stomach to the small intestine.
    • (b) Curd: Incorrect. Curd is a dairy product.
    • (c) Glycogen: Incorrect. Glycogen is a form of stored glucose.
    • (d) Paste: Incorrect. Paste is not a term used for partially digested food.
26. The particles found in the blood which play an important role in blood clotting are called:
    • (a) Platelets: Correct. Platelets are crucial for blood clotting.
    • (b) Red blood cells: Incorrect. Red blood cells carry oxygen.
    • (c) Monocytes: Incorrect. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell.
    • (d) Granulocytes: Incorrect. Granulocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response.
27. In a cross between a normal male and a female carrier for haemophiliac disease, the percentage of their sons expected to suffer the disease as haemophiliac is:
    • (a) 25%: Incorrect. This percentage is incorrect.
    • (b) 50%: Correct. There is a 50% chance that a son will inherit the X chromosome carrying the haemophilia gene.
    • (c) 70%: Incorrect. This percentage is incorrect.
    • (d) 45%: Incorrect. This percentage is incorrect.

Answer Key

1. D
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. C
13. A
14. D
15. C
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. B
21. B
22. B
23. A
24. D
25. A
26. A
27. B